- Which have a role in public policy-making in India? 1. Parliament 2. Bureaucracy 3. Pressure groups
- 1 and 2
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Parliament scrutinises, bureaucracy advises and implements, pressure groups influence.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Who is constitutionally empowered to declare an area a Scheduled Area?
- Governor
- Chief Minister
- Prime Minister
- President
Show answer
Answer: (D) President
The President acts by order, after consulting the Governor.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Since 1 July 2026 the rural employment guarantee is —
- 100 days under MGNREGA
- 125 days under the VB-G RAM G Act
- 150 days under MGNREGA
- 200 days under PM-KISAN
Show answer
Answer: (B) 125 days under the VB-G RAM G Act
The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 repealed MGNREGA from 1 July 2026.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - A UPSC member can be removed during the term by
- the President on a Supreme Court inquiry report
- the Prime Minister
- Parliament by resolution
- the President on Parliament’s report
Show answer
Answer: (A) the President on a Supreme Court inquiry report
Art 317(1) — for misbehaviour.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - District and Regional Councils can make laws on — 1. a forest that is not a reserved forest 2. shifting cultivation 3. use of a water-course for farming
- 2 only
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- All three
Show answer
Answer: (D) All three
All three appear in the Sixth Schedule list.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is correct? (IAS 2013) 1. An amendment bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha 2. An amendment changing the federal character must be ratified by all the States
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither
Either House can start it; half the States (not all) must ratify.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - States can be reorganised or their boundaries changed by —
- an executive order with the state’s consent
- Parliament by simple majority in ordinary law-making
- two-thirds majority of both Houses
- two-thirds majority plus the state legislature’s consent
Show answer
Answer: (B) Parliament by simple majority in ordinary law-making
Article 4 — not an amendment under Article 368.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which pair is NOT correctly matched?
- Prohibition of discrimination — Article 15
- Right to form associations — Article 19
- Protection of life — Article 20
- Constitutional remedies — Article 32
Show answer
Answer: (C) Protection of life — Article 20
Life and personal liberty is Art 21; Art 20 deals with conviction for offences.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Consider: 1. The Governor of Punjab is also the administrator of Chandigarh. 2. The Governor of Kerala is also the administrator of Lakshadweep. Which is correct? (IAS 2009)
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Lakshadweep has its own Administrator; Punjab’s Governor runs Chandigarh.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - India has a parliamentary system of government because (IAS 2015)
- the Lok Sabha is directly elected
- Parliament can amend the Constitution
- the Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
- ministers are collectively answerable to the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Answer: (D) ministers are collectively answerable to the Lok Sabha
Executive accountability to the House is the heart of the parliamentary form.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- After the 2022 delimitation, how many elected seats does the J&K Assembly have (leaving out the 24 PoK seats)?
- 83
- 87
- 90
- 107
Show answer
Answer: (C) 90
Jammu 43 + Kashmir 47 = 90; with PoK seats the total is 114.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - For which can a person go straight to the Supreme Court and High Courts? 1. Denial of information under RTI 2. Denial of education under RTE 3. Denial of work under MGNREGA
- 1 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Only education for 6–14 is a Fundamental Right (Art 21A); RTI and work were statutory rights with their own remedies.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The President may set up an Inter-State Council —
- Only during an emergency
- During a national calamity
- When the Council of Ministers advises it
- When it appears it would serve the public interest
Show answer
Answer: (D) When it appears it would serve the public interest
Art 263 wording.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Constituent Assembly was formed under
- a Congress resolution
- the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
- the Indian Independence Act, 1947
- resolutions of the provincial legislatures
Show answer
Answer: (B) the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Its basis was the Cabinet Mission Plan (November 1946).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - After notice by one-tenth of Lok Sabha members, the special sitting to consider disapproving an emergency must be held within —
- 7 days
- 10 days
- 14 days
- 30 days
- Proportional representation is used for which? 1. Lok Sabha 2. State Assemblies 3. Rajya Sabha 4. State Legislative Councils
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 3 and 4
Directly elected Houses use FPTP.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The office of ombudsman first arose in —
- Denmark
- Norway
- Sweden
- Finland
- Which benefits did the law give persons with disabilities? 1. Free schooling up to 18 years in government schools 2. Preferential allotment of land for business 3. Ramps in public buildings (IAS 2011)
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three were in the PwD Act 1995; the RPwD Act 2016 also gives free education to children with benchmark disabilities from 6 to 18.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - “Socialist” in the Preamble stands for — 1. Social equality 2. Economic equality 3. Political equality
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 2
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Political equality comes under “democratic” and political justice.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which statement about pressure groups is NOT true?
- It has no political programme
- It does not aim at capturing power
- It exerts pressure on the executive
- It tries to gain formal control over the government
Show answer
Answer: (D) It tries to gain formal control over the government
Formal control of government is the aim of parties.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- Functions of the Cabinet Secretariat: 1. Promoting inter-ministerial coordination 2. Recording discussions 3. Convening Cabinet meetings on the PM’s orders
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are its secretarial duties.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which amendment added four languages to the Eighth Schedule, taking it to 22? (IAS 2008)
- 90th
- 91st
- 92nd
- 93rd
Show answer
Answer: (C) 92nd
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Under the Constitution, concentration of wealth violates — (IAS 2021)
- the Right to Equality
- the Directive Principles of State Policy
- the Right to Freedom
- the concept of welfare
Show answer
Answer: (B) the Directive Principles of State Policy
Art 39(c).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - In India, the characteristic that best fits the bureaucracy is — (IAS 2020)
- an agency widening parliamentary democracy
- an agency strengthening federalism
- an agency for political stability and growth
- an agency for implementing public policy
Show answer
Answer: (D) an agency for implementing public policy
It gives policy inputs and implements what the political executive approves.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The maximum number of directors on a co-operative society’s board under Article 243ZJ is —
- 11
- 15
- 21
- 25
Show answer
Answer: (C) 21
One seat for SC/ST and two for women are reserved where such members exist.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which e-governance plan is called NeGP 2.0?
- e-Choupal
- M-Governance
- e-Kranti
- e-Jansampark
Show answer
Answer: (C) e-Kranti
Approved 25 March 2015 with 44 Mission Mode Projects.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Central Vigilance Commission was first set up by —
- a constitutional provision
- an Act of Parliament
- a resolution of the Santhanam Committee
- an executive resolution
Show answer
Answer: (D) an executive resolution
In 1964 by government resolution; the CVC Act came only in 2003.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - What does an emergency under Article 356 do to Fundamental Rights?
- Suspends Articles 14 and 19
- Suspends Article 21
- Suspends Articles 15 and 16
- Has no effect
Show answer
Answer: (D) Has no effect
Only a national emergency affects rights.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - (1) A retired permanent High Court judge cannot plead in any court except the Supreme Court (2) To be a High Court judge one needs at least 5 years in judicial office. Which is correct? (UPSC 2006)
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither
Art 220 also allows pleading in other High Courts; the requirement is 10 years.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Consider: 1. Zonal Councils rest on an Article of the Constitution. 2. The Constitution provides for Parliament to set up an Inter-State Council. 3. The Union Home Minister chairs all Zonal Councils.
- 1 and 2
- 3 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 only
Zonal Councils are statutory (1956); the ISC is set up by the President under Art 263, not by Parliament.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- “Economic justice” as an objective of the Constitution is found in — (IAS 2013)
- the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
- the Preamble and the DPSP
- Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- none of these
Show answer
Answer: (B) the Preamble and the DPSP
The Preamble names it; the Directive Principles work it out.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - What did the 1919 Act clearly lay down? (IAS 2015)
- the separation of powers between judiciary and legislature
- the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
- the powers of the Secretary of State and the Viceroy
- none of these
Show answer
Answer: (B) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
Separate central and provincial lists of subjects were drawn up.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Lokpal cannot take up a complaint made after —
- 3 years
- 5 years
- 7 years
- 10 years
Show answer
Answer: (C) 7 years
Seven years from the date of the alleged offence.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is true of the Chairman of a Legislative Council? 1. Elected by the Council 2. Appointed by the Governor 3. Removable by simple majority 4. Must be a member of the Council
- 1, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1 and 4
- 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 4
Removal needs a majority of all the then members, not a simple majority.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the (IAS 2012)
- 1st Amendment Act
- 2nd Amendment Act
- 4th Amendment Act
- None of these
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1st Amendment Act
The 1st Amendment (1951) added the Ninth Schedule with Articles 31A and 31B to protect land reform.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - States that get grants in lieu of jute export duty (Art 273) are —
- Assam, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal
- Assam, Tripura, Bihar, Jharkhand
- West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha
- Assam, Meghalaya, Bihar, West Bengal
Show answer
Answer: (A) Assam, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal
Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India while the duty lasts.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - At the time of appointment the Prime Minister — (IAS 2012)
- need not be an MP but must enter either House within six months
- need not be an MP but must enter the Lok Sabha within six months
- has to be an MP of either House already
- has to be a Lok Sabha member already
Show answer
Answer: (A) need not be an MP but must enter either House within six months
Art 75(5) — six months to enter either House.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Consider: 1. The minimum age for panchayat membership is 25 years. 2. A panchayat re-formed after early dissolution continues only for the remainder of the term. (IAS 2016)
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The minimum age is 21 (Article 243F).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which pairing is correct? 1. National emergency — Art 352. 2. Financial emergency — Art 356. 3. State emergency — Art 360.
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 only
- All three
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 only
Financial is 360 and state emergency is 356.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which settles that the Indian Constitution is federal?
- A written, rigid constitution
- An independent judiciary
- Residuary powers with the Centre
- Division of powers between Centre and States
Show answer
Answer: (D) Division of powers between Centre and States
Division of powers is the defining feature of any federation.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- Which is NOT true of the Governor?
- Term is fixed at 5 years
- Holds office at the President’s pleasure
- May be put in charge of more than one state
- Minimum age is 30 years
Show answer
Answer: (D) Minimum age is 30 years
The minimum age is 35.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Consider: 1. President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. 2. The Centre must justify it once misuse is shown prima facie. 3. A state government pursuing anti-secular politics may face action under Art 356.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 2
- All three
Show answer
Answer: (D) All three
All three follow from the S.R. Bommai judgment (1994).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Indian territory was handed over to Pakistan under Berubari by the —
- 7th Amendment
- 9th Amendment
- 14th Amendment
- 100th Amendment
Show answer
Answer: (B) 9th Amendment
Ceding needs an Article 368 amendment — the 9th, 1960.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - What is the position of the Right to Property in India today? (IAS 2021)
- Legal right of citizens only
- Constitutional/legal right of any person
- Fundamental Right of citizens only
- Neither a Fundamental nor a legal right
Show answer
Answer: (B) Constitutional/legal right of any person
Art 300A — no person can be deprived of property save by authority of law.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - In which cases did the Supreme Court hold that Parliament can amend even Part III? (1) Golaknath (2) Sajjan Singh (3) Shankari Prasad
- 1 only
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Golaknath held the opposite; Kesavananda later allowed amendment subject to the basic structure.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - CAG: 1. heads the Indian Audit & Accounts Department; 2. Article 280 deals with the office; 3. removed in the manner of a Supreme Court judge. Correct?
- Only 1
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- All three
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Article 148 (not 280, which is the Finance Commission) creates the CAG.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is correct? (IAS 2020) 1. The Constitution defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, FRs and democracy 2. The Constitution provides for judicial review to safeguard liberties
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The basic structure is not defined anywhere in the text.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which test does NOT by itself make a party national?
- 6% votes in 4 states + 4 Lok Sabha seats
- 2% of Lok Sabha seats from 3 states
- State party in 4 states
- Forming the government in one state
Show answer
Answer: (D) Forming the government in one state
Ruling one state is not a test; the other three are.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Constitution fosters fraternity by means of — 1. Single citizenship 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Fundamental Rights
- 1 and 3
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Both foster a sense of belonging to one nation.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Under which Article is the Finance Commission set up?
- 275
- 280
- 282
- 263
Show answer
Answer: (B) 280
Art 275 is statutory grants; 282 discretionary grants.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- Which Schedule holds the anti-defection provisions? (IAS 2014)
- Second
- Fifth
- Eighth
- Tenth
Show answer
Answer: (D) Tenth
Added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which are correct? 1. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a money bill. 2. It cannot vote on demands for grants. 3. It cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. (IAS 2015)
- 1 only
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 2
It can discuss the budget — it just cannot vote the demands.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Special rules for running and controlling Scheduled Areas in several states are found in which Schedule? (IAS 2008)
- Third
- Fifth
- Seventh
- Ninth
Show answer
Answer: (B) Fifth
The Sixth covers only the four north-eastern states.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Beyond checking spending, why does the CAG matter? 1. Its reports help agencies press charges. 2. It can prosecute violators of law in government companies. 3. It acts as a quasi-judicial body while investigating.
- Only 1
- Only 3
- 1 and 3
- All three
Show answer
Answer: (A) Only 1
The CAG has no judicial or prosecuting power.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which are true of pressure groups? 1. Not mainly political 2. Do not seek direct power 3. Do not contest elections 4. Need not have a political ideology
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four describe pressure groups.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Who was the first Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council?
- Satyendra Prasad Sinha
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale
- Motilal Nehru
- C. Rajagopalachari
Show answer
Answer: (A) Satyendra Prasad Sinha
He was named Law Member in the Morley–Minto period.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which committee first recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj, in 1957?
- Ashok Mehta Committee
- Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
- Setalvad Committee
- Hanumantha Rao Committee
Show answer
Answer: (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Its plan of democratic decentralisation was accepted by the NDC in January 1958.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - A bill to amend which of these needs neither a special majority nor ratification by states?
- Formation of new states
- Election of the President
- Distribution of legislative powers
- Representation of states in Parliament
Show answer
Answer: (A) Formation of new states
Articles 3–4: an ordinary law.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which statement on pardoning powers is correct?
- Only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence
- Both can pardon death and court-martial sentences
- President — death; Governor — court-martial
- The Governor alone handles court-martial cases
Show answer
Answer: (A) Only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence
Art 161 does not reach court-martial cases, and the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence (he can commute it).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which amendment ensured that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during an emergency?
- 44th
- 46th
- 45th
- 48th
Show answer
Answer: (A) 44th
The 44th (1978) amended Article 359.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- The Attorney General can: 1. take part in Lok Sabha proceedings 2. be a member of a Lok Sabha committee 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha (IAS 2013)
- 1 only
- 2 and 4
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Art 88 gives a voice but no vote.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Nirmal Gram Puraskar was — (IAS 2006)
- a scholarship for single girl children in villages
- a scholarship for village sportswomen
- an incentive for computer education in village schools
- an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj Institutions
Show answer
Answer: (D) an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj Institutions
It rewarded PRIs that achieved full sanitation coverage.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which pair is wrongly matched?
- NIPUN Bharat — education
- PM SVANidhi — street vendors
- SISFS — agriculture
- SVAMITVA — rural property cards
Show answer
Answer: (C) SISFS — agriculture
The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme funds startups (DPIIT).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Who can provide for a Joint State Public Service Commission?
- The President
- The UPSC
- Parliament
- The Governors
Show answer
Answer: (C) Parliament
Art 315(2) — Parliament by law, on the states’ resolutions.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Who may vote by postal ballot? 1. Foreign-service officers posted abroad 2. Armed forces 3. Officials on election duty 4. Indians settled abroad
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Overseas electors must vote in person at their home booth.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which of these is NOT one of the eight characteristics of good governance?
- Responsiveness
- Accountability
- Effectiveness and efficiency
- Ethics
Show answer
Answer: (D) Ethics
Ethics is one of the four pillars (Ethos, Ethics, Equity, Efficiency), not one of the eight traits.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which of these take part in policy-making in India? 1. NGOs 2. Pressure groups 3. International agencies
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Besides State organs, many non-State and even international players feed into policy.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which of these carry out a directive? 1. UN peacekeeping 2. Land reforms 3. Bank nationalisation 4. MGNREGA
- 1 only
- 3 and 4
- 2 and 3
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (D) All four
Arts 51, 39(b)-(c), 39(b)-(c) and 41 respectively.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - About the Directive Principles: 1. They spell out socio-economic democracy. 2. No court can enforce them. (IAS 2015)
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- Neither
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both
Both follow from Part IV and Art 37.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - What best describes a political party?
- People organised to improve their locality
- People sharing the same religious views
- People with common principles on public matters who seek power
- People attending an election meeting
Show answer
Answer: (C) People with common principles on public matters who seek power
A party is united by principles on public questions and aims to win power.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- Which statement about Pitt’s India Act, 1784 is correct?
- It set up the Supreme Court at Calcutta
- It made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of India
- It placed a Board of Control over the Company’s Court of Directors
- It ended the Company’s trade monopoly
Show answer
Answer: (C) It placed a Board of Control over the Company’s Court of Directors
The Supreme Court came under the 1773 Act; “Governor-General of India” came in 1833; the monopoly ended in 1813.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Under the Constitution, which of these can be suspended? 1. Members of a Public Service Commission 2. Election Commissioners other than the CEC 3. State Election Commissioners
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 3 only
- 1 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Art 317(2) lets PSC members be suspended pending an inquiry; no such provision for ECs or SECs.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which state uses English as its official language? (IAS 2004)
- Nagaland
- Tripura
- Assam
- Manipur
Show answer
Answer: (A) Nagaland
Nagaland adopted English as its official language.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Who sit on the committee that selects the Chief Information Commissioner? 1. Prime Minister 2. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha 3. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM
- 1 and 2
- 1 and 3
- None of these
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Section 12(3) of the RTI Act.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Ratification by half the States is needed to amend: (1) election of the President (2) States’ representation in Parliament (3) the Seventh Schedule lists (4) abolition of a State’s Legislative Council
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
A Legislative Council is created or abolished under Art 169 by a simple-majority law.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - On the Committee of Parliament on Official Language: 1. Provided by Art 344(4) 2. 30 members — 20 LS, 10 RS 3. Examines the Commission’s recommendations
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
- Which statements about the Preamble are correct? 1. It grew out of Nehru’s Objectives Resolution. 2. It is non-justiciable. 3. It cannot be amended. 4. It cannot override specific provisions.
- 1 and 2
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
It can be amended (1976), so 3 is wrong.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which statement on Lok Adalats is correct? (UPSC CSE)
- They can settle matters only at the pre-litigation stage, not pending cases
- They can deal only with civil, not criminal, matters
- Every Lok Adalat has only serving or retired judicial officers
- None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (D) None of the above
They take both pending and pre-litigation matters, compoundable criminal cases too, and include lawyers and social workers.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which are Fundamental Duties? 1. Preserve the heritage of composite culture 2. Protect weaker sections from social injustice 3. Develop the scientific temper 4. Strive towards excellence (IAS 2012)
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1, 3 and 4
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4
Protecting weaker sections is a directive (Art 46), not a duty.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Central Information Commission’s 2013 order held that national parties are
- exempt from RTI
- public authorities under RTI
- constitutional bodies
- statutory bodies under the RP Act
Show answer
Answer: (B) public authorities under RTI
Because of indirect state funding and their public functions.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- Which provisions protect the UPSC’s independence? 1. Expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund 2. The chairman cannot take further government jobs 3. Service conditions cannot be worsened after appointment
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are safeguards (Arts 322, 319 and 318).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - NITI Aayog was set up in place of the — (IAS 2015)
- Human Rights Commission
- Finance Commission
- Law Commission
- Planning Commission
Show answer
Answer: (D) Planning Commission
A Cabinet resolution of 1 January 2015 replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which statement about the Lok Sabha Speaker is NOT correct?
- He can be removed by an ordinary majority of members present
- His pay is a charged item on India’s Consolidated Fund
- His regulation of the House cannot be questioned in court
- He votes only to break a tie
Show answer
Answer: (A) He can be removed by an ordinary majority of members present
Removal needs a majority of all the then members (effective majority), with 14 days’ notice.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Under Article 249 the Rajya Sabha can let Parliament legislate on a State List subject by a resolution passed by —
- a simple majority
- two-thirds of members present and voting
- a majority of total membership
- three-fourths of members
Show answer
Answer: (B) two-thirds of members present and voting
The resolution lasts up to a year and can be renewed.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which are correct? 1. Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution in 1946 2. Rajendra Prasad was President of the Constituent Assembly 3. Members signed the Constitution on 24 January 1950
- 2 and 3
- 1 only
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are true — the resolution was moved on 13 December 1946.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Deciding Centre–state disputes is part of which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (UPSC 2014)
- Advisory jurisdiction
- Original jurisdiction
- Appellate jurisdiction
- Writ jurisdiction
Show answer
Answer: (B) Original jurisdiction
Art 131 — original and exclusive jurisdiction.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The JVP Committee (1948–49) dealt with —
- industrialisation
- formation of states on a linguistic basis
- the national language
- reservation for SCs and STs
Show answer
Answer: (B) formation of states on a linguistic basis
It reviewed the Dhar Commission’s report.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Act came into force on 31 October — the birth anniversary of —
- Atal Bihari Vajpayee
- Deen Dayal Upadhyay
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- Madan Mohan Malaviya
Show answer
Answer: (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
The day is marked as Rashtriya Ekta Diwas.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which article provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
- 338
- 338A
- 338B
- 342A
Show answer
Answer: (B) 338A
Art 338A, inserted by the 89th Amendment.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - For naturalisation, the applicant must have lived in India or served its government —
- for any 1 year
- for 12 months immediately before applying
- for 5 years in all
- for 7 years in all
Show answer
Answer: (B) for 12 months immediately before applying
Plus a total of 11 years in the 14 years before that.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
- The exchange of enclaves with Bangladesh was given effect by the
- 99th Amendment
- 98th Amendment
- 100th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
Show answer
Answer: (C) 100th Amendment
The 100th (2015) implemented the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement and its 2011 Protocol.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is NOT a way of acquiring Indian citizenship under today’s law?
- Being born in India to Indian parents
- Registration by a person of Indian origin resident here 7 years
- Naturalisation by a foreigner after 10 years of residence in all
- Descent, for a child of an Indian parent born abroad
Show answer
Answer: (C) Naturalisation by a foreigner after 10 years of residence in all
Naturalisation needs 12 years in all (11 + the last 12 months).
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which are conditions for citizenship by naturalisation? 1. Not a citizen of a country that bars Indians from naturalising. 2. Gives up the other citizenship. 3. Knows a language of the Eighth Schedule.
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are in the Third Schedule of the Citizenship Act.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill failed in the Lok Sabha on 17 April 2026 because
- the Rajya Sabha rejected it first
- it did not get a majority of total membership
- it fell short of two-thirds of members present and voting
- the President withheld assent
Show answer
Answer: (C) it fell short of two-thirds of members present and voting
298 voted for it out of 528 voting; 352 were needed. 298 was more than half of 543, so the first condition was met.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu became one UT in —
- 2019
- 2020
- 1987
- 2014
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2020
The merger took effect on 26 January 2020.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - A person born in Kerala in 1960 is a citizen of —
- India and then Kerala
- Kerala and then India
- India only
- India, after turning 18
Show answer
Answer: (C) India only
India has single citizenship.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is NOT an objective of PESA, 1996? (IAS 2013)
- To provide self-governance
- To recognise traditional rights
- To set up autonomous tribal regions
- To protect tribals from exploitation
Show answer
Answer: (C) To set up autonomous tribal regions
PESA works through Gram Sabhas; it creates no autonomous regions.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Members of the Lokpal selection committee: 1. PM 2. Lok Sabha Speaker 3. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha 4. CJI or a SC judge nominated by the CJI
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1 and 3
- All four
Show answer
Answer: (D) All four
The fifth member is an eminent jurist chosen on their recommendation.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - India’s parliamentary system differs from Britain’s because India has
- a real and a nominal executive
- collective responsibility
- a bicameral legislature
- judicial review
Show answer
Answer: (D) judicial review
The first three are shared with Britain; judicial review comes from the USA.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes → - Which is the largest UT by area?
- Jammu & Kashmir
- Ladakh
- Andaman & Nicobar
- Delhi
Show answer
Answer: (B) Ladakh
Ladakh is by far the largest.
Read the full chapter in mind-map notes →
GK question sets
FAQs
Where can I find GK questions with answers?
This page lists GK questions and answers chapter by chapter — history, geography, polity, economy, science, computer and current affairs. Tap "Show answer" under any question for the answer and explanation.
Are these GK questions free?
Yes, every question and answer is free. Full mind-map notes and short tricks for each chapter are available on the site.
Where do I get 20 GK questions every day?
A fresh set is published daily — see "Today's 20 GK questions" above, or open the 10, 50 and 100 question sets.
Which exams are these questions useful for?
SSC, Railway (RRB NTPC), Banking, state PSC and all government exams that test general knowledge.