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50 Polity GK Questions with Answers

Today's 50 Polity questions. Pick an option, then tap "Show answer". A new set of 50 comes every day.

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50 questions
  1. In India, the characteristic that best fits the bureaucracy is — (IAS 2020)
    1. an agency widening parliamentary democracy
    2. an agency strengthening federalism
    3. an agency for political stability and growth
    4. an agency for implementing public policy
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) an agency for implementing public policy

    It gives policy inputs and implements what the political executive approves.

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  2. Consider: 1. Nothing in the Constitution promotes equal pay for equal work for men and women. 2. The Constitution does not define “backward classes”. Which is/are correct? (IAS 2006)
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both
    4. Neither
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Art 39(d) directs equal pay; backward classes are not defined.

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  3. Which amendment added four languages to the Eighth Schedule, taking it to 22? (IAS 2008)
    1. 90th
    2. 91st
    3. 92nd
    4. 93rd
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 92nd

    Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

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  4. The Attorney General can: 1. take part in Lok Sabha proceedings 2. be a member of a Lok Sabha committee 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha (IAS 2013)
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

    Art 88 gives a voice but no vote.

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  5. “Socialist” in the Preamble stands for — 1. Social equality 2. Economic equality 3. Political equality
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 2

    Political equality comes under “democratic” and political justice.

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  6. Which state uses English as its official language? (IAS 2004)
    1. Nagaland
    2. Tripura
    3. Assam
    4. Manipur
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Nagaland

    Nagaland adopted English as its official language.

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  7. Deciding Centre–state disputes is part of which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (UPSC 2014)
    1. Advisory jurisdiction
    2. Original jurisdiction
    3. Appellate jurisdiction
    4. Writ jurisdiction
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Original jurisdiction

    Art 131 — original and exclusive jurisdiction.

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  8. On the Committee of Parliament on Official Language: 1. Provided by Art 344(4) 2. 30 members — 20 LS, 10 RS 3. Examines the Commission’s recommendations
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three are correct.

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  9. Which settles that the Indian Constitution is federal?
    1. A written, rigid constitution
    2. An independent judiciary
    3. Residuary powers with the Centre
    4. Division of powers between Centre and States
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Division of powers between Centre and States

    Division of powers is the defining feature of any federation.

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  10. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first applied in:
    1. Golaknath case
    2. Kesavananda Bharati case
    3. Minerva Mills case
    4. None of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Golaknath case

    Golaknath (1967) applied its ruling only to the future.

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  1. The Union of India includes — 1. States 2. Union Territories 3. Acquired territories
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    UTs and acquired areas are in the territory, not the Union.

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  2. A bill to amend which of these needs neither a special majority nor ratification by states?
    1. Formation of new states
    2. Election of the President
    3. Distribution of legislative powers
    4. Representation of states in Parliament
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Formation of new states

    Articles 3–4: an ordinary law.

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  3. What is the position of the Right to Property in India today? (IAS 2021)
    1. Legal right of citizens only
    2. Constitutional/legal right of any person
    3. Fundamental Right of citizens only
    4. Neither a Fundamental nor a legal right
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Constitutional/legal right of any person

    Art 300A — no person can be deprived of property save by authority of law.

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  4. Which pair is wrongly matched? (UPSC 2004)
    1. Forests — Concurrent List
    2. Stock exchanges — Concurrent List
    3. Post Office Savings Bank — Union List
    4. Public health — State List
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Stock exchanges — Concurrent List

    Stock exchanges and futures markets are in the Union List.

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  5. Which statement about Pitt’s India Act, 1784 is correct?
    1. It set up the Supreme Court at Calcutta
    2. It made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of India
    3. It placed a Board of Control over the Company’s Court of Directors
    4. It ended the Company’s trade monopoly
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) It placed a Board of Control over the Company’s Court of Directors

    The Supreme Court came under the 1773 Act; “Governor-General of India” came in 1833; the monopoly ended in 1813.

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  6. Which is correct? (IAS 2013) 1. An amendment bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha 2. An amendment changing the federal character must be ratified by all the States
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both
    4. Neither
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither

    Either House can start it; half the States (not all) must ratify.

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  7. Which is NOT a ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule?
    1. Voluntarily giving up party membership
    2. Voting against the party whip
    3. A nominated member joining a party seven months after taking the seat
    4. Being expelled by one’s party
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Being expelled by one’s party

    Expulsion is not voluntary; the member is treated as unattached.

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  8. NITI Aayog was set up in place of the — (IAS 2015)
    1. Human Rights Commission
    2. Finance Commission
    3. Law Commission
    4. Planning Commission
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Planning Commission

    A Cabinet resolution of 1 January 2015 replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog.

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  9. The Kher Commission wanted which languages as principal and subsidiary till 1965?
    1. Hindi and English
    2. English and Urdu
    3. English and Hindi
    4. Hindi and Telugu
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) English and Hindi

    English principal, Hindi subsidiary until 1965.

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  10. The final NRC of Assam (31 Aug 2019) left out about —
    1. 4 lakh
    2. 19 lakh
    3. 40 lakh
    4. 1 crore
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 19 lakh

    19,06,657 persons; about 40 lakh were outside the 2018 complete draft.

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  1. On whose satisfaction is a national emergency proclaimed or continued?
    1. Prime Minister
    2. Home Minister
    3. President
    4. Vice-President
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) President

    The President acts on the Cabinet’s written advice.

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  2. Which committee first recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj, in 1957?
    1. Ashok Mehta Committee
    2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
    3. Setalvad Committee
    4. Hanumantha Rao Committee
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

    Its plan of democratic decentralisation was accepted by the NDC in January 1958.

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  3. Which is NOT true of the President’s ordinance power?
    1. It is open to judicial review
    2. It can amend the Constitution
    3. It is used when Parliament is not in full session
    4. Reasons may be examined by courts
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) It can amend the Constitution

    Only Art 368 can amend the Constitution.

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  4. The Act came into force on 31 October — the birth anniversary of —
    1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    2. Deen Dayal Upadhyay
    3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    4. Madan Mohan Malaviya
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

    The day is marked as Rashtriya Ekta Diwas.

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  5. “Economic justice” as an objective of the Constitution is found in — (IAS 2013)
    1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
    2. the Preamble and the DPSP
    3. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
    4. none of these
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) the Preamble and the DPSP

    The Preamble names it; the Directive Principles work it out.

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  6. Which test does NOT by itself make a party national?
    1. 6% votes in 4 states + 4 Lok Sabha seats
    2. 2% of Lok Sabha seats from 3 states
    3. State party in 4 states
    4. Forming the government in one state
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Forming the government in one state

    Ruling one state is not a test; the other three are.

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  7. Which Schedule holds the anti-defection provisions? (IAS 2014)
    1. Second
    2. Fifth
    3. Eighth
    4. Tenth
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Tenth

    Added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985.

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  8. The President may set up an Inter-State Council —
    1. Only during an emergency
    2. During a national calamity
    3. When the Council of Ministers advises it
    4. When it appears it would serve the public interest
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) When it appears it would serve the public interest

    Art 263 wording.

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  9. Which pair is wrongly matched?
    1. NIPUN Bharat — education
    2. PM SVANidhi — street vendors
    3. SISFS — agriculture
    4. SVAMITVA — rural property cards
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) SISFS — agriculture

    The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme funds startups (DPIIT).

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  10. Which provisions protect the UPSC’s independence? 1. Expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund 2. The chairman cannot take further government jobs 3. Service conditions cannot be worsened after appointment
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three are safeguards (Arts 322, 319 and 318).

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  1. After notice by one-tenth of Lok Sabha members, the special sitting to consider disapproving an emergency must be held within —
    1. 7 days
    2. 10 days
    3. 14 days
    4. 30 days
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 14 days

    Article 352(8).

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  2. Consider: 1. President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. 2. The Centre must justify it once misuse is shown prima facie. 3. A state government pursuing anti-secular politics may face action under Art 356.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. All three
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) All three

    All three follow from the S.R. Bommai judgment (1994).

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  3. About the Directive Principles: 1. They spell out socio-economic democracy. 2. No court can enforce them. (IAS 2015)
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both
    4. Neither
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both

    Both follow from Part IV and Art 37.

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  4. The exchange of enclaves with Bangladesh was given effect by the
    1. 99th Amendment
    2. 98th Amendment
    3. 100th Amendment
    4. 97th Amendment
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 100th Amendment

    The 100th (2015) implemented the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement and its 2011 Protocol.

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  5. The Governor can make rules for — 1. the term of regional council members 2. composition of regional councils 3. electoral rolls for their elections
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. All three
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) All three

    All are on the Governor’s rule-making list.

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  6. Which benefits did the law give persons with disabilities? 1. Free schooling up to 18 years in government schools 2. Preferential allotment of land for business 3. Ramps in public buildings (IAS 2011)
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three were in the PwD Act 1995; the RPwD Act 2016 also gives free education to children with benchmark disabilities from 6 to 18.

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  7. Which statement on pardoning powers is correct?
    1. Only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence
    2. Both can pardon death and court-martial sentences
    3. President — death; Governor — court-martial
    4. The Governor alone handles court-martial cases
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence

    Art 161 does not reach court-martial cases, and the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence (he can commute it).

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  8. For which can a person go straight to the Supreme Court and High Courts? 1. Denial of information under RTI 2. Denial of education under RTE 3. Denial of work under MGNREGA
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Only education for 6–14 is a Fundamental Right (Art 21A); RTI and work were statutory rights with their own remedies.

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  9. What best describes a political party?
    1. People organised to improve their locality
    2. People sharing the same religious views
    3. People with common principles on public matters who seek power
    4. People attending an election meeting
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) People with common principles on public matters who seek power

    A party is united by principles on public questions and aims to win power.

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  10. Which is the largest UT by area?
    1. Jammu & Kashmir
    2. Ladakh
    3. Andaman & Nicobar
    4. Delhi
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Ladakh

    Ladakh is by far the largest.

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  1. Which of these does the UNCRC treat as rights of the child? 1. Development 2. Expression 3. Recreation
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    The CRC covers survival, development, protection and participation — including expression and play.

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  2. Ratification by half the States is needed to amend: (1) election of the President (2) States’ representation in Parliament (3) the Seventh Schedule lists (4) abolition of a State’s Legislative Council
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

    A Legislative Council is created or abolished under Art 169 by a simple-majority law.

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  3. India has a parliamentary system of government because (IAS 2015)
    1. the Lok Sabha is directly elected
    2. Parliament can amend the Constitution
    3. the Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
    4. ministers are collectively answerable to the Lok Sabha
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) ministers are collectively answerable to the Lok Sabha

    Executive accountability to the House is the heart of the parliamentary form.

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  4. In which cases did the Supreme Court hold that Parliament can amend even Part III? (1) Golaknath (2) Sajjan Singh (3) Shankari Prasad
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 2 and 3

    Golaknath held the opposite; Kesavananda later allowed amendment subject to the basic structure.

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  5. Central Administrative Tribunal: 1. statutory body 2. members only from administration 3. not bound by the CPC 4. covers All-India and Central Services and central posts 5. set up in 1985. Correct?
    1. 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1 and 4
    3. 1, 3, 4 and 5
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4 and 5

    Members come from both judicial and administrative backgrounds.

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  6. Where was a VVPAT first used in an actual election?
    1. Gandhinagar, 2014
    2. Noksen (Nagaland), 2013
    3. Paravur (Kerala), 1982
    4. Lucknow, 2014
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Noksen (Nagaland), 2013

    The September 2013 by-election.

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  7. Who may vote by postal ballot? 1. Foreign-service officers posted abroad 2. Armed forces 3. Officials on election duty 4. Indians settled abroad
    1. 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. All four
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

    Overseas electors must vote in person at their home booth.

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  8. Consider: 1. The minimum age for panchayat membership is 25 years. 2. A panchayat re-formed after early dissolution continues only for the remainder of the term. (IAS 2016)
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both
    4. Neither
    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    The minimum age is 21 (Article 243F).

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  9. Which is true of the Chairman of a Legislative Council? 1. Elected by the Council 2. Appointed by the Governor 3. Removable by simple majority 4. Must be a member of the Council
    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 2 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 4

    Removal needs a majority of all the then members, not a simple majority.

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  10. India’s parliamentary system differs from Britain’s because India has
    1. a real and a nominal executive
    2. collective responsibility
    3. a bicameral legislature
    4. judicial review
    Show answer

    Answer: (D) judicial review

    The first three are shared with Britain; judicial review comes from the USA.

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